If you read my previous post about the function of καί and its implications for the various interpretations of τὸν Ἰσραὴλ τοῦ θεοῦ, you may have been left with some lingering questions—as was I. In addition, I was missing one vital piece of information that makes view #1 slightly more plausible. Since I don’t think I expressed the issues quite cogently enough the first time, I’m going to take another shot at it.
The two questions that I was left asking myself were:
- If the interpretation which understands καί to mean and is so clearly wrong, why do the majority of English translations translate it that way?
- Is the English word and capable of being used to join two items when the former encompasses the latter? For example, is and being used properly in this statement: I love food and pizza? Or does and—to be used properly—have to join two distinct items?
Allow me to (1) recap, (2) revisit the view that understands καί to mean and, and then (3) answer the two questions posed above.